NSCL Management Trainee (Production) Solved Paper 2019

Q.1. Calcium deficiency causes toxicity of?
(1) Iron
(2) Manganese
(3) Boron
(4) None of these
Ans
Manganese
Q.2. Blue chaff disease of oats is due to deficiency of?
(1) Copper
(2) Molybdenum
(3) Boron
(4) Manganese
Ans
Molybdenum
Q.3. Free floating fresh water fern is?
(1) Anabaena
(2) Azolla
(3) Azospirillum
(4) None of these
Ans
Azolla
Q.4. Border strip of irrigation is followed in?
(1) Potato
(2) Sugarcane
(3) Mango
(4) Wheat
Ans
Wheat
Q.5. The nutrient removed in maximum quantity by paddy crop is?
(1) Nitrogen
(2) Phosphorus
(3) Potash
(4) Zinc
Ans
Potash
Q.6. Antagonism of Mn exists with?
(1) Calcium
(2) Boron
(3) Iron
(4) Copper
Ans
Iron
Q.7. Depression in efficiency of Rhizobium is due to?
(1) Iron application
(2) Phosphorus application
(3) Potash application
(4) Excessive nitrogen use
Ans
Excessive nitrogen use
Q.8. Purple pigmentation in Brassicas is due to?
(1) Deficiency of Iron
(2) Excessive nitrogen
(3) Potassium deficiency
(4) Phosphorus deficiency
Ans
Phosphorus deficiency
Q.9. Yellow mosaic in soybean is spread by?
(1) Soil
(2) Seed
(3) Wind
(4) White fly
Ans
White fly
Q.10. Seed viability is tested by?
(1) Bromide
(2) Iodide
(3) Chloride
(4) None of these
Ans
Chloride

Mock Test for NSCL Management Trainee (Production)

Q.11. Copper deficiency is a problem in which part of India?
(1) North
(2) South
(3) East
(4) West
Ans
South
Q.12. Objectionable weed for seed production of wheat is?
(1) Chenopodium album
(2) Convolvulus arvensis
(3) Phalaris minor
(4) Melilotus indica
Ans
Convolvulus arvensis
Q.13. Which element is maximum in black soil?
(1) Nitrogen
(2) Phosphorus
(3) Potash
(4) Sulphur
Ans
Potash
Q.14. Boron deficiency causes?
(1) Blue chaff disease
(2) Die back disease
(3) Gray speck disease
(4) Brown heart disease
Ans
Brown heart disease
Q.15. Maize crop is specially sensitive to soil moisture stress at?
(1) Knee high stage
(2) Tasseling stage
(3) Anthesis stage
(4) None of these
Ans
Anthesis stage
Q.16. Yellow mosaic resistant variety of Moong is?
(1) Moong T1
(2) T44
(3) Pant moong –4
(4) Pusa Baisakhi
Ans
Pant moong –4
Q.17. Which is not a synthetic auxin?
(1) 2, 4–D
(2) IAA
(3) Dalapon
(4) Dicamba
Ans
IAA
Q.18. Which crop is susceptible to deficiency of iron?
(1) Barley
(2) Maize
(3) Peas
(4) Rice
Ans
Rice

Q.19. Drought tolerance in plants is due to?
(1) Improved water uptake
(2) Conserving moisture
(3) Mitigating stress mechanism
(4) None of these
Ans
Mitigating stress mechanism
Q.20. At what time groundnut plant is self pollinated?
(1) Morning
(2) Evening
(3) Mid day
(4) Night
Ans
Morning
Q.21. Control of weeds by weedicides in linseed is?
(1) MCPA
(2) 2, 4–D
(3) Atrazine
(4) None of these
Ans
MCPA
The process of development of seed from anther is called?
(1) Androgenesis
(2) Pathenogenesis
(3) Apomixis
(4) Sporogenesis
Ans
Androgenesis
Q.23. The most important technique for the production of virus free seed is?
(1) Roguing
(2) Grow out test
(3) Tissue culture
(4) Planting in isolation
Ans
Tissue culture
Q.24. One of the following is the seed borne diseases?
(1) Powdery mildew of peas
(2) Loose smut of wheat
(3) Rust of lentil
(4) Cercospora leaf spot of mungbean
Ans
Loose smut of wheat
Q.25. The treatment of seeds with rhizobium culture and fungicides is done
in?
(1) Soybean
(2) Millets
(3) Mustard
(4) Sugarcane
Ans
Soybean
Q.26. The seed plot technique is followed in the seed production of?
(1) Wheat
(2) Potato
(3) Garlic
(4) Sweet potato
Ans
Potato
Q.27. The Central Seed Testing Laboratory is located at?
(1) New Delhi
(2) Banglore
(3) Kolkata
(4) Chandigarh
Ans
New Delhi
Q.28. In germination test the commonly used term B P stands for?
(1) Below paper
(2) Between paper
(3) Butter paper
(4) Barrier paper
Ans
Between paper
Q.29. In seed technology the term “Ear” means?
(1) Hearing organ
(2) Type of inflorescence
(3) Type of seed
(4) Vigour testing Method
Ans
Type of inflorescence
Q.30. The genetic purity of the seed is tested by?
(1) T Z test
(2) Moisture test
(3) Grow out test
(4) Dormancy test
Ans
Grow out test

Mock Test for NSCL Management Trainee (Production)

Q.31. One of the seeds has the dormancy?
(1) Groundnut
(2) Mustard
(3) Onion
(4) Wheat
Ans
Groundnut
Q.32. In quality seed, our primary concern is with?
(1) Endosperm
(2) Seed coat
(3) Embryo
(4) None of these
Ans
Embryo
Q.33. One of the seeds is non-albuminous?
(1) Castor
(2) Groundnut
(3) Lentil
(4) Onion
Ans
Lentil
Q.34. One of the following category of seeds is not certified by certification
agency?
(1) Certified seed
(2) Nucleus seed
(3) Breeder seed
(4) Foundation seed
Ans
Nucleus seed
Q.35. Lignification in the seeds?
(1) Improves mechanical strength
(2) Improves permeability
(3) Breaks dormancy
(4) None of these
Ans
Improves mechanical strength
Q.36. The highly proteinous seed is?
(1) Peas
(2) Chickpea
(3) Soybean
(4) Wheat
Ans
Soybean
Q.37. Fluff is the seed produced in?
(1) Sunflower
(2) Sugarcane
(3) Soybean
(4) Mustard
Ans
Sugarcane
Q.38. Caruncle is found in the seed of?
(1) Wheat
(2) Castor
(3) Cluster bean
(4) Chickpea
Ans
Castor
Q.39. Aflatoxin is a disease afflicted in the seeds of?
(1) Groundnut
(2) Sorghum
(3) Soybean
(4) Rajma
Ans
Groundnut
Q.40. Mitosis occurs between?
(1) G1 to S
(2) S to G2
(3) G2 to G1
(4) None of these
Ans
G2 to G1
Q.41. When there is crossing over between centromere and gene under consideration, the segregation of that gene takes place during?
(1) Metaphase I
(2) Metaphase II
(3) Anaphase I
(4) Anaphase II
Ans
Anaphase II
Q.42. Renner complex is associated with?
(1) D. melanogaster
(2) O. lamarckiana
(3) C. Elegans
(4) X. levis
Ans
O. lamarckiana
Q.43. Polyploidy in plant is induced by?
(1) X-ray
(2) GA3
(3) Colchicine
(4) Acridine dye
Ans
Colchicine
Q.44. Q-Band is obtained by use of?
(1) Quinacrine mustard
(2) Nitrogen mustard
(3) Sulphur mustard
(4) All of these
Ans
Quinacrine mustard
Q.45. DNA G is responsible for?
(1) Primase
(2) Gyrase
(3) SSB
(4) TBP
Ans
Primase
Q.46. ‘Kozak’ is associated with?
(1) Transcription
(2) Translation
(3) DNA replication
(4) DNA repair
Ans
Translation

Q.47. Frame-shift mutation is caused by?
(1) 2-amino purine
(2) Aflatoxin
(3) Acridine orange
(4) None of these
Ans
Acridine orange
Q.48. GC→TA transversion is caused by?
(1) Aflatoxin
(2) U V rays
(3) Deamination
(4) None of these
Ans
Aflatoxin
Q.49. A Double top cross refers to?
(1) Inbred × inbred
(2) Inbred × OPV
(3) Single cross × inbred
(4) Single cross × OPV
Ans
Single cross × OPV
Q.50. Development of embryo from antipodal cell is known as?
(1) Apogamy
(2) Adventitive embryony
(3) Apospory
(4) Androgamy
Ans
Apogamy
Q.51. Semigamy is found in?
(1) Cotton
(2) Sunflower
(3) Crepis
(4) None of these
Ans
Cotton
Q.52. The source of Xa-21 gene in rice is?
(1) O. Sativa
(2) O. Nivara
(3) O. longistaminata
(4) O. Minuta
Ans
O. longistaminata
Q.53. “Golden Rice” refers to the rice rich in?
(1) B–carotene
(2) Fe
(3) Zn
(4) Protein
Ans
B–carotene
Q.54. Triple test cross is an extension of?
(1) NCD I
(2) NCD II
(3) NCD III
(4) None of these
Ans
NCD III
Q.55. ‘Opaque-2’ mutant of maize has?
(1) High lysine & high tryptophan
(2) High lysine & low tryptophan
(3) Low lysine & low tryptophan
(4) Low lysine & High tryptophan
Ans
High lysine & high tryptophan
Q.56. ‘Double Zero’ rapseed mustard refers to?
(1) Low erucic & low glucoeinolate
(2) Low erucic & high glucoeinolate
(3) High erucic & low glucoeinolate
(4) High erucic & high glucoeinolate
Ans
Low erucic & low glucoeinolate
Q.57. Which of the following is not an objective of Gramin Bhandaran
Yojana?
(1) Creation of scientific storage capacity of farm produce
(2) Initiative on vegetable clusters
(3) Promotion of grading, standardization and quality control of
agricultural produce
(4) Prevention of distress sale immediately after harvest
Ans
Initiative on vegetable clusters
Q.58. Depreciation means?
(1) Destruction of plants and machinery in fire
(2) Loss of value of equipment over time due to wear and tear
(3) Closer of factory due to labour problem
(4) Closer of factory due to less sales
Ans
Loss of value of equipment over time due to wear and tear
Q.59. EOQ denotes?
(1) Economic Order Quality
(2) Economic Order Quantity
(3) Elementary Order Quantities
(4) Economic Organization of Quantitative
Ans
Economic Order Quantity
Q.60. Which of these is the cost to the Government?
(1) Direct tax
(2) Indirect tax
(3) VAT
(4) Subsidy
Ans
Subsidy
Q.61. The most common grades for agricultural commodities are?
(1) Trade mark
(2) Agmark
(3) Ecomark
(4) ISI
Ans
Agmark
Q.62. APEDA is the coordinating agency for organic production and export
under the brand name of
(1) Orgo India
(2) Indian Organic Product
(3) India Organic
(4) Organic India
Ans
Organic India
Q.63. Full form of ICRISAT?
(1) International Crops Research Institute for the Semi-Arid Tropics
(2) Indian Council for Research in Irrigation Systems and Transmissions
(3) International Cross Intuitive Societies of Archives and Technologies
(4) Indian Center for Research, Investigation of Supply Across Territories
Ans
International Crops Research Institute for the Semi-Arid Tropics
Q.64. Who is eligible to get MUDRA loans under PMMY out of the following
borrowers?
(1) Larger Corporate
(2) Municipal Corporate
(3) Small fruits vendors
(4) MNC
Ans
Small fruits vendors
Q.65. CRAFICARD stands for
(1) Committee to review arrangements for International credit for
agriculture and rural development
(2) Committee to review arrangements for informal credit for agriculture
and rural development
(3) Committee to revise arrangements for institutional credit for
agriculture and rural development
(4) Committee to review arrangements for institutional credit for
agriculture and rural development
Ans
Committee to review arrangements for institutional credit for
agriculture and rural development
DIRECTIONS? (Question No. 66 to 70) Study the following table carefully
and answer the questions below

Q.66. Production of pulses in 1991–92 was approximately what percentage
of the production of oil seeds in 1993–94?
(1) 50
(2) 199
(3) 150
(4) 175
Ans
50
Q.67. Production of what type of crop was going to increase in each year in
given years?
(1) Rice
(2) Pulses
(3) Sugarcane
(4) Oil seeds
Ans
Oil seeds
Q.68. What was the average production of wheat in the given years?
(1) 144.60 millian tones
(2) 155.73 millian tones
(3) 130.73 millian tones
(4) 136.60 millian tones
Ans
144.60 millian tones
Q.69. Production of sugarcane was what percentage of the total crops
produced in the year 1996–97?
(1) 20.50
(2) 30.49
(3) 35.52
(4) 36.52
Ans
30.49
Q.70. Which crop has its actual production of one of the years exactly same
as its average production in the given years.
(1) Rice
(2) Sugarcane
(3) Wheat
(4) Pulses
Ans
Pulses
Q.71. If the perimeter of a certain rectangle is 76 and its area 360, then what
is the length of its shortest side?
(1) 12
(2) 20
(3) 18
(4) 36
Ans
18
Q.72. The present ratio of the ages of A and B is 4?5. 18 years ago, this ratio
was 11?16. Find sum total of their present ages.
(1) 90 years
(2) 105 years
(3) 110 years
(4) 80 years
Ans
90 years
Q.73. A man covers a distance of 1200 km in 70 days resting 9 hours a day. If
he rests 10 hours a day and walks with speed 1½ times of the previous.
In how many days will he cover 750 km?
(1) 30
(2) 31¼
(3) 31
(4) None of these
Ans
31¼
Q.74. There are five boxes in a cargo hold. The weight of the first box is 200
kg and the weight of the second box is 20% higher than the weight of
the third box, whose weight is 25% higher than the first box’s weight.
The fourth box at 350 kg is 30% lighter than the fifth box. Find the
difference in the average weight of the four heaviest boxes and the four
lightest boxes?
(1) 51.5 kg
(2) 75 kg
(3) 37.5 kg
(4) 112.5 kg
Ans
75 kg
Q.75. The population of a village is 5500. If the number of males increases
by 11% and the number of females increases by 20%, then the
population becomes 6330. Find the population of females in the
village?
(1) 2500
(2) 3000
(3) 2000
(4) 3500
Ans
2500
Q.76. A farmer traveled a distance of 61 km in 9 hours. He traveled partly on
foot at the rate of 4 km per hour and partly on bicycle at the rate of 9
km per hour. The distance travelled on foot is?
(1) 17 km
(2) 16 km
(3) 15 km
(4) 14 km
Ans
16 km
DIRECTION? Select the choice out of the given choices which gives the
given words in the correct alphabetical order.
Q.77. Nasal, New, Nine, Noble?
(1) Noble, New, Nasal, Nine
(2) Nine, Noble, New, Nasal
(3) Nasal, New, Nine, Noble
(4) New, Nasal, Nine, Noble
Ans
Nasal, New, Nine, Noble
Q.78. Five students participated in an examination and each scored
different marks. Naina scored higher than Meena. Kamla scored lower
than praveen but higher than Naina. Anuj’s score was between Meena
and Naina. Which of the following pairs represents the highest and the
lowest scores respectively?
(1) Praveen, Naina
(2) Naina, Praveen
(3) Praveen, Anuj
(4) Praveen, Meena
Ans
Praveen, Meena
Q.79. In a certain code, COMPUTER is written as RFUVQNPC. How is
MEDICINE written in the same code?
(1) EOJDJEFM
(2) EOJDEJFM
(3) MFEJDJOE
(4) MFEDJJOE
Ans
EOJDJEFM
DIRECTIONS? In the following number series only one number is wrong.
Find out the wrong number
Q.80. 18, 119, 708, 3534, 14136, 42405
(1) 708
(2) 14136
(3) 119
(4) 3534
Ans
3534
Q.81. A child walks 25 feet towards North, turns right and walks 40 feet,
turns right again and walks 45 feet. He then turns left and walks 20
feet. He turns left again walk 20 feet. Finally, he turns to his left to
walk another 20 feet. In which direction is the child from his starting
point?
(1) East
(2) West
(3) North
(4) South
Ans
East
Q.82. In a group of 36 persons, a total of 16 take cold drink while 9 take only
cold drink not green coconut drink. How many persons in this group
take only green coconut drink but not cold drink. (Every person take
drink either cold drink or green coconut or both)?
(1) 27
(2) 25
(3) 20
(4) 22
Ans
20
DIRECTIONS? The Venn diagram given below shows the estimated
readership of 3 daily newspapers (H.T, TOI & Statesman) in Delhi. The total
readership and advertising cost for each of these papers is as below.

The total population of the city is approximately 14 million. The common
readership (in lakhs) indicated in the Venn diagram
Q.83. The number of people (in lakhs) who read only one
newspaper is? 

(1) 23.4
(2) 17.4
(3) 11.9
(4) None of these
Ans
11.9
84. Match List–I with List–II
List–I List–II
1. Jawahar Lal Nehru Port A. Tamilnadu
2. Paradip Port B. Maharastra
3. Kandla Port C. Odisha
4. Ennore Port D. Gujarat
(1) 1-D, 2-A, 3-B, 4-C
(2) 1-B, 2-C, 3-D, 4-A
(3) 1-D, 2-C, 3-B, 4-A
(4) 1-B, 2-A, 3-D, 4-C
Ans
1-B, 2-C, 3-D, 4-A
Q.85. Shigmo is one of the prominent festival of the?
(1) Tamil Community
(2) Santhali Community
(3) Konkani Hindu Community
(4) Muslim Community
Ans
Konkani Hindu Community
Q.86. The first battle of Tarain was fought between?
(1) Mohammad Ghori and Prithvi Raj Chauhan
(2) Akbar and Hemu
(3) Mahmud of Ghazni and Prithvi Raj Chauhan
(4) Akbar and Rana Pratap
Ans
Mohammad Ghori and Prithvi Raj Chauhan
Q.87. In case of reflection it is well known that when a mirror turned
through an angle the reflected ray turns through?
(1) Same angle
(2) Twice the angle
(3) Thrice the angle
(4) Half the angle
Ans
Twice the angle
Q.88. Find the odd one out?
(1) FIFA World Cup
(2) Ryder Cup
(3) Walker Cup
(4) Solheim cup
Ans
FIFA World Cup
Q.89. When the branch of a tree is shaken violently, the leaves fall. This
happening can be explained by?
(1) Joules 1st law of motion
(2) Newton’s 1st law of motion
(3) Joules 2nd law of motion
(4) Newton’s 3rd law of motion
Ans
Newton’s 1st law of motion
Q.90. As per the constitutional provisions, who has the absolute and
ultimate powers regarding the passing of money bills?
(1) The House of the people
(2) The Council of States
(3) The speaker of the House of the people
(4) The Ex- officio Chairman of the Council of states
Ans
The House of the people
Q.91. Who amongst the following is not a Lawn Tennis Player
(1) Rafel Nadal
(2) Roger Federer
(3) Tiger Woods
(4) Serena Williams
Ans
Tiger Woods
Q.92. Largest-Indian state in terms of area is?
(1) Madhya Pradesh
(2) Maharastra
(3) Rajasthan
(4) Karnataka
Ans
Rajasthan
Q.93. 1 KB memory is?
(1) 1000 bytes
(2) 2 ^10 bytes
(3) 10 ^6 bytes
(4) 10 ^2 bytes
Ans
(2) 2 ^ 10 bytes
Q.94. The request/reply protocol for exchanges on the internet network is
called?
(1) Hypertext Transfer Protocol
(2) Hypertext Markup Language
(3) International Protocol
(4) URL (Uniform Resource Locator)
Ans
Hypertext Transfer Protocol
GENERAL ENGLISH
Q.95. Choose the word that is nearest in meaning to the capitalised word.
ABASE
(1) Humiliate or degrade oneslef
(2) Uncouth
(3) Baseless
(4) Forceful
Ans
Humiliate or degrade oneslef
Q.96. In the following question pick the wrong spelt word.
(1) Abnormity
(2) Aberration
(3) Abstinant
(4) Abstention
Ans
Abstinant
DIRECTIONS? In the following question, fill in the blank by selecting a
choice which is in keeping with good English usage.
97. The friend writes faster ……….?
(1) Than me
(2) Than myself
(3) Than I
(4) Than self
Ans
Than I
Q.98. Given below are the four spellings of the same word. Choose the
correct one.
(1) Anoynymous
(2) Anonemous
(3) Anonymous
(4) Annonymous
Ans
Anonymous
Q.99. Fill in the blanks.
In a classroom students are to be trained to love ……?
(1) Each other
(2) All others
(3) One another
(4) Altogether
Ans
One another
Q.100. Identify the correct tense which has been used in this sentence.
By the end of this year he will have saved a lot of money.
(1) Future continuous tense
(2) Future perfect tense
(3) Future perfect continuous tense
(4) Simple future tense
Ans
Future perfect tense
[tutor_course count=’3′]

Mock Test for NSCL Management Trainee (Production)

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